Six days after a cesarean delivery, a 25-year-old woman comes to the emergency department with nausea, vomiting, and abdominal pain. The patient developed a sharp, right-sided abdominal pain 12 hours ago that has been increasing in severity, and she now has persistent nausea and vomiting. She has had no sick contacts, hematemesis, dysuria, or hematuria. Her last bowel movement was yesterday, with no blood in the stool. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries other than the recent cesarean delivery. Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 98/min, and respirations are 18/min. The surgical incision has minimal serosanguineous discharge with no associated fluctuance or mass. Abdominal examination shows tenderness over the right lower quadrant. There is guarding and rebound tenderness. Bowel sounds are decreased. Speculum examination shows no purulent discharge. The uterus is 14-week sized and nontender. Hemoglobin is 9.6 g/dL and leukocyte count is 21,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Acute appendicitis
B) Endometritis
C) Fascial dehiscence
D) Septic pelvic thrombophlebitis
E) Strangulated incisional hernia
F) Uterine incarceration
Correct Answer:
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