A 28-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 37 weeks gestation comes to the hospital due to severe abdominal and back pain. The patient's prenatal course has been uncomplicated, and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. She had a prior cesarean delivery and is scheduled for a repeat cesarean delivery at 39 weeks gestation. Blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg and pulse is 130/min. Fetal heart rate tracing is shown in the exhibit. Physical examination shows a palpable, irregular protuberance in the lower abdomen and moderate vaginal bleeding. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Abruptio placentae
B) Normal labor with uterine fibroids
C) Placenta previa
D) Umbilical cord prolapse
E) Uterine rupture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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