A 35-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 1 aborta 2, comes to the office for her first prenatal visit. Her last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago, and she is concerned about a recent episode of vaginal bleeding and cramping. A home pregnancy test was positive a few days after the patient's missed menstrual period. Around that time, she had nausea that has since subsided. She has had 1 prior full-term delivery followed by 2 early first-trimester losses requiring dilation and curettage procedures. Six months ago, she had an isolated episode of sudden right arm weakness and slurred speech, which resolved spontaneously 2 hours later. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin but no other medications. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg. Pelvic examination shows a closed cervix; no vaginal bleeding; and a slightly enlarged, irregularly shaped uterus. Ultrasound reveals an empty uterus with a single subserosal fibroid that is 2 cm in diameter. β-hCG is 23 IU/L. Which of the following maternal factors is the most likely cause of this patient's miscarriage?
A) Demyelinating lesions
B) Fibroid uterus
C) Hypercoagulable state
D) Insulin resistance
E) Subclinical uterine infection
Correct Answer:
Verified
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