A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 35 weeks gestation is evaluated in the labor and delivery unit due to increasing mucoid vaginal bleeding and contractions. The patient has been undergoing an induction of labor for fetal growth restriction due to chronic hypertension. Pelvic examination an hour ago showed the cervix to be 6 cm dilated and 100% effaced after spontaneous rupture of membranes. Since then, the patient has developed increasing bloody discharge with some clots. Contractions have also increased in intensity and frequency. Group B Streptococcus rectovaginal culture performed last week was negative. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 120/min, moderate variability, multiple early decelerations, and no accelerations. Contractions occur every 2 minutes. The cervix is 8 cm dilated and 100% effaced with a moderate amount of mucus and blood on examination. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Biophysical profile
B) Broad-spectrum antibiotics
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Expectant management only
E) Forceps-assisted vaginal delivery
F) Tocolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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