A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 37 weeks gestation is admitted in active labor. The patient's first child was born via cesarean delivery for breech presentation, and her second was born via spontaneous vaginal delivery. She receives epidural analgesia on admission and her contractions become nonpainful. An intrauterine pressure catheter is placed due to variable decelerations, which resolve with amnioinfusion. The patient reaches a cervical dilation of 10 cm and 100% effacement; the fetal vertex is at +1 station. After she pushes for 20 minutes, there is a sudden onset of abdominal pain, which is initially intermittent but becomes constant after a few minutes. The fetal heart rate tracing is shown in the following exhibit.
On repeat examination, the cervix is 10 cm dilated and 100% effaced, and the fetal vertex has retracted to ?2 station. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer amnioinfusion bolus
B) Perform laparotomy and cesarean delivery
C) Perform McRoberts maneuver with suprapubic pressure
D) Perform vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
E) Start an oxytocin infusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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