A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 33 weeks gestation is an inpatient on the antepartum unit for management of known vasa previa. A few minutes ago, the patient had rupture of membranes with leakage of blood-tinged fluid. She has no contractions or heavy vaginal bleeding. The pregnancy was the result of in vitro fertilization and has otherwise been uncomplicated. A fetal growth ultrasound performed yesterday revealed a cephalic fetus with an estimated fetal weight at the 50th percentile and a normal amniotic fluid index. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 70/min. Fetal heart rate is 100/min. The uterus is nontender and has no palpable contractions. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Betamethasone and magnesium sulfate
B) Biophysical profile
C) Emergency cesarean delivery
D) Immediate induction of labor
E) Prophylactic latency antibiotics
Correct Answer:
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Q252: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q253: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q254: A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q255: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
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Q259: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q260: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q261: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q262: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
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