A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, is evaluated on the postpartum floor for nausea and lightheadedness. The patient developed these symptoms when she tried to ambulate to the bathroom, forcing her to immediately lie down. Earlier today, she underwent a repeat cesarean delivery at 39 weeks gestation; she is taking scheduled NSAIDs for incisional pain. The patient is fatigued and feels like she can barely keep her eyes open. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Blood pressure is 80/50 mm Hg, pulse is 124/min, and respirations are 18/min. The patient appears pale and has cold skin. The uterine fundus is firm at the umbilicus, and the abdomen is tender but has no increased bleeding from the incision site. On pelvic examination, there is minimal lochia and no clots. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Antiemetics and serial examinations
B) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C) Emergency laparotomy
D) Oxytocin infusion and fundal massage
E) Transvaginal ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q256: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 4 para 2
Q257: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q258: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q259: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q260: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q262: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q263: A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q264: A 28-year-old woman comes to the office
Q265: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q266: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents