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A 34-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to a Positive

Question 266

Multiple Choice

A 34-year-old woman comes to the office due to a positive home pregnancy test, which she took after developing daily nausea and vomiting.  The patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping.  She has no chronic medical conditions and has had 2 cesarean deliveries.  The patient's last delivery was 8 months ago, and she is still breastfeeding her infant.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 76/min.  Cardiopulmonary examination is normal.  The abdomen is soft, nontender, and nondistended.  Pelvic examination reveals a small, mobile uterus.  Serum β-hCG level is 6,134 mIU/mL.  A transvaginal ultrasound shows a uterus with a thin endometrial stripe and a 5-cm complex mass with fetal cardiac activity.  The mass appears within the interstitial segment of the proximal fallopian tube and embedded in the myometrium.  Bilateral adnexa appear normal.  There is no free fluid in the pelvis.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Methotrexate therapy
B) Mifepristone and misoprostol therapy
C) Repeat transvaginal ultrasound in 48 hours
D) Routine prenatal care
E) Surgical removal

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