A 28-year-old woman comes to the office after a positive home pregnancy test. The patient is at 5 weeks gestation by a sure, regular last menstrual period. She has had some breast tenderness but no dysuria, vaginal bleeding, or cramping. The patient has no chronic medical conditions or prior surgeries. This is her first pregnancy, and she has no history of sexually transmitted infections. Vital signs and physical examination are unremarkable. Transvaginal ultrasound shows a slightly thickened endometrial stripe but no intrauterine gestation or adnexal masses. Quantitative β-hCG is 1,100 mIU/mL and a repeat 48 hours later is 1,370 mIU/mL. The patient undergoes a diagnostic uterine dilation and curettage, and the next day β-hCG level is 1,566 mIU/mL. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Levonorgestrel
B) Methotrexate
C) Mifepristone and misoprostol
D) Reassurance and observation only
E) Serum progesterone levels
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q259: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q260: A 36-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2,
Q261: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q262: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q263: A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q265: A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q266: A 34-year-old woman comes to the office
Q267: Three days after an uncomplicated cesarean delivery,
Q268: A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q269: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents