A 33-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2, is evaluated on the postpartum floor due to low back and buttock pain. Yesterday, the patient had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery after a prolonged induction of labor for preeclampsia with severe features. Epidural analgesia was removed immediately postpartum. Afterward, the patient began to develop low back and buttock pain. The pain is constant but worsens with sitting. She has no chronic medical conditions and did not have these symptoms during pregnancy. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min. On examination, the uterine fundus is firm, and the perineum is intact with diffuse symmetric vulvar swelling. There is exquisite tenderness to palpation over the coccyx. There is no surrounding erythema. Deep tendon reflexes are 2+. Strength is 5/5 in the bilateral lower extremities. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Blood cultures
B) Epidural blood patch
C) Erythrocyte sedimentation rate testing
D) MRI of the spine
E) Reassurance and analgesics
Correct Answer:
Verified
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