A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to abdominal pain and nausea that began 2 days earlier but has become increasingly severe over the last 3 hours. The patient has passed several vaginal blood clots in the last hour. She has a history of irregular menstrual cycles and is not sure of the date of her last period. She was diagnosed with a bicornuate uterus 2 years ago during an infertility evaluation. The patient has no other medical conditions and has had no surgeries. BMI is 28 kg/m2. Blood pressure is 90/56 mm Hg and pulse is 120/min. Abdominal examination shows guarding with decreased bowel sounds. Speculum examination shows moderate bleeding with clots from the cervix. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Transvaginal ultrasound reveals a gestational sac at the upper left uterine cornu and free fluid in the posterior cul-de-sac of the pelvis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Dilation and curettage
B) Methotrexate administration
C) Misoprostol administration
D) Serum quantitative β-hCG level
E) Surgical exploration
Correct Answer:
Verified
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