A 25-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 24 weeks gestation comes to labor and delivery due to decreased fetal movement. The patient has felt decreased fetal movement for the past day and no fetal movement in the past hour. She has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. Last week, the patient went to a picnic and the next day she had nausea, watery diarrhea, and muscle aches, but no rashes or joint pain. Her symptoms resolved after 24 hours. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Temperature is 98.9 F (37.2 C) , blood pressure is 118/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. There is no flank pain and the uterus is nontender. On pelvic examination, the cervix is closed, and membranes are intact. No fetal heart tones are detected on Doppler, and a transabdominal ultrasound confirms an intrauterine fetal demise. Which of the following pathogens is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Borrelia burgdorferi
B) Group B Streptococcus
C) Listeria monocytogenes
D) Parvovirus B19
E) Staphylococcus aureus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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