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A 41-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 2 Para 1, at 35 Weeks

Question 328

Multiple Choice

A 41-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 35 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department with contractions.  The patient began to have contractions 5 hours ago after spending the day at the beach.  She is now having 3-5 contractions every hour that sometimes are relatively painful.  The patient has had no vaginal bleeding or leakage of fluid.  She has iron deficiency anemia, for which she takes a prenatal vitamin and iron supplementation.  The patient had a positive rectovaginal culture for group B Streptococcus at her prenatal visit earlier this week.  She had a vaginal delivery at term with her prior pregnancy.  Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min.  A contraction is palpated on abdominal examination, but the uterus is nontender between contractions.  The cervix is closed on digital cervical examination.  A nonstress test has a baseline of 120/min, moderate variability, and multiple accelerations.  Tocodynamometry reveals irregular uterine contractions.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Administer tocolytics to inhibit preterm labor
B) Admit for labor and administer penicillin
C) Perform transvaginal ultrasound for cervical length
D) Reassure and discharge patient with labor precautions
E) Start magnesium sulfate and betamethasone for fetal protection

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