A 31-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 10 weeks gestation comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient has had no vaginal bleeding or cramping. Her first pregnancy was uncomplicated and ended with a term spontaneous vaginal delivery. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. The patient takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 68/min. BMI is 24 kg/m2. The uterine fundus is palpated above the pubic symphysis. Pelvic ultrasound shows 2 viable intrauterine gestations, a single fundal placenta, and a thin intertwin membrane that meets the placenta at a 90-degree angle. This patient is at highest risk for which of the following complications?
A) Conjoined twins
B) Cord entanglement
C) Placenta accreta
D) Placenta previa
E) Twin-twin transfusion syndrome
Correct Answer:
Verified
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