A 23-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 41 weeks gestation is admitted to labor and delivery for contractions over the past 3 hours. The patient has no chronic medical conditions. She had an elevated 1-hour glucose challenge test but normal 3-hour glucose tolerance test at 28 weeks gestation. The patient receives epidural analgesia immediately upon admission and has spontaneous rupture of membranes 2 hours after admission. An intrauterine pressure catheter is placed for variable decelerations, which resolve with an amnioinfusion. Her cervical examinations are shown below:
Current temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) . Fetal heart rate tracing shows a baseline of 140/min, moderate variability, and multiple accelerations. Intrauterine pressure catheter shows an average of 200 Montevideo units every 10 minutes for the last 4 hours. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer prostaglandin
B) Continue current management
C) Perform operative vaginal delivery
D) Place fetal scalp electrode
E) Proceed to cesarean delivery
F) Start oxytocin infusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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