A 30-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 2, at 37 weeks gestation comes to labor and delivery for regular, painful contractions. The contractions started an hour ago and are now 3-4 minutes apart. She has had no leakage of fluid or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement has been normal. At her prenatal visit last week, examination showed a cephalic fetal presentation; group B Streptococcus rectovaginal culture was negative. Today, temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. Fetal heart rate tracing shows moderate variability, multiple accelerations, and no decelerations. Tocodynamometer shows contractions every 3-4 minutes. The abdomen is nontender when contractions subside. On digital cervical examination, the cervix is 4 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and a taut, bulging bag is palpable with no presenting fetal part. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amniotomy
B) Cesarean delivery
C) External cephalic version
D) Terbutaline tocolysis
E) Transabdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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