A 39-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 28 weeks gestation comes to the hospital due to painful uterine contractions for the past 4 hours accompanied by the passage of clear fluid from her vagina. She initiated prenatal care a week ago, during which an anatomy ultrasound revealed a fetus with anencephaly. Her prior pregnancy was uncomplicated. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. A sterile speculum examination reveals pooling of nitrazine-positive fluid in the vagina. The cervix is 4 cm dilated and 80% effaced. Bedside ultrasound reveals anhydramnios and an anencephalic fetus in breech presentation. Fetal heart rate is normal. Tocometer shows contractions every 3 minutes. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer corticosteroids
B) Administer magnesium sulfate
C) Allow spontaneous vaginal delivery
D) Amnioinfusion and tocolysis
E) Perform cesarean delivery
Correct Answer:
Verified
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