A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient is at 16 weeks gestation by her last menstrual period and has had no contractions, vaginal bleeding, or leakage of fluid. For the first 2 months of her pregnancy, the patient had daily nausea and vomiting that resolved without treatment. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no previous surgeries. Her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin that she started taking a few weeks ago. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The uterus measures 20 weeks gestation. Prenatal laboratory testing reveals that the patient's serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration is 3.8 multiples of the median (normal: <2.5) . Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CA-125 level
B) Fetal ultrasound
C) Increase prenatal vitamin dose
D) Quantitative β-hCG level
E) Repeat serum alpha-fetoprotein concentration
Correct Answer:
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