A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation is admitted to the hospital due to spontaneous rupture of membranes and regular, painful contractions. This pregnancy has been uncomplicated, but her last pregnancy resulted in an operative vaginal delivery for a non-reassuring fetal status. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and no prior surgeries. Her digital cervical examinations since admission are shown below:
Current temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 68/min. Fetal heart rate monitoring is category I and tocodynamometer shows contractions every 2-3 minutes. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Cesarean delivery
B) Expectant management only
C) Intrauterine pressure catheter placement
D) Operative vaginal delivery
E) Oxytocin augmentation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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