A 64-year-old man comes to the emergency department complaining of facial swelling. He has not had such symptoms before and has no associated itching or rash. The patient's medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, and coronary artery disease. He had a myocardial infarction 7 years ago. He was recently diagnosed with congestive heart failure with systolic dysfunction. The patient's medications include ramipril, metoprolol, furosemide, spironolactone, aspirin, glyburide, and simvastatin. Physical examination shows prominent lip and tongue swelling without stridor. His symptoms subside within 24 hours after he is admitted. Which of the following is the best statement concerning the management of this patient?
A) Lisinopril can be substituted for ramipril because there is a low chance of recurrence with a different angiotensin-converting-enzyme inhibitor.
B) Losartan can be substituted for ramipril because angiotensin receptor blockers do not affect the kinin system and have a low risk for angioedema.
C) Losartan can be substituted for ramipril because the 2 drugs are antigenically distinct and do not cross react.
D) Ramipril can be continued because the risk of recurrent angioedema is very low and the benefits outweigh the risk.
E) Ramipril can be continued if combined with diphenhydramine.
Correct Answer:
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