A 4-month-old boy is brought to the office for a well-child visit. The boy is rolling over and cooing. He reaches for toys and mouths them frequently. He is breastfed exclusively and takes a multivitamin with iron. Last week, the patient was diagnosed with acute otitis media and croup, which were treated with a 10-day course of amoxicillin and a single dose of dexamethasone. He is currently on day 6 of antibiotics and is no longer irritable or coughing. His last fever was 4 days ago. The patient lives at home with his parents and sister age 3. His sister has a seizure disorder of unclear etiology that is well controlled on antiepileptic medication. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) . Physical examination is normal for his age. The infant is scheduled to receive several immunizations today as part of the recommended schedule. The parents express concern about their son receiving the diphtheria-tetanus-acellular pertussis vaccination. The father says, "After he got his shots the first time, he had a fever of 103 and was so fussy that we had to take him to the urgent care clinic to make sure he was okay. I'm not sure I can go through that again." Based on this child's history, which of the following is the most appropriate step regarding DTaP administration in this patient?
A) Immunization is contraindicated due to his reaction to the first dose
B) Immunization is contraindicated due to his sister's seizure disorder
C) Immunization should be given today despite his history
D) Immunization should be postponed as he recently received steroids
E) Immunization should be postponed until antibiotic therapy is complete
Correct Answer:
Verified
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