A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to chest pain that occurred at home. He was watching television when he developed left-sided chest pain described as dull and pressure-like. The pain progressively worsened and radiated to the throat but spontaneously resolved within 20 minutes. During the past week, the patient had 2 similar episodes with exertion at his job as a construction worker. He has had no palpitations, syncope, shortness of breath, or diaphoresis. He has a history of hypertension treated with lisinopril and is a lifetime nonsmoker. Family history is significant for stroke at a young age in a paternal uncle. The patient is currently free of chest pain and comfortable. Blood pressure is 150/80 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. Physical examination is otherwise unremarkable. ECG shows sinus rhythm with T-wave inversion in leads V5 and V6. Chest x-ray is normal. Cardiac troponin I level is normal (<0.012 ng/dL) . Aspirin, metoprolol, atorvastatin, clopidogrel, and subcutaneous enoxaparin are initiated. Eight hours later, he is still without chest pain. ECG is unchanged and repeat troponin I level is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Discharge home with prescriptions for aspirin, metoprolol, and atorvastatin
B) Obtain coronary calcium scan
C) Obtain exercise stress test
D) Perform coronary angiography within 24 hours
E) Provide reassurance and discharge home with no new medications
Correct Answer:
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