A 55-year-old man with type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension comes to the physician with exertional chest pain over the last 3 months that has worsened recently. He reports chest pain, occasionally accompanied by diaphoresis, after walking one block. His medications include low-dose aspirin, metoprolol, rosuvastatin, insulin detemir, and nitroglycerin as needed. Cardiac catheterization shows proximal left anterior descending artery stenosis of 90%, right coronary artery stenosis of 85%, and left circumflex artery stenosis of 75%. His left ventricular ejection fraction is 45%. His hemoglobin A1C is 7.8% and LDL cholesterol is 110 mg/dL. What is the most appropriate management for this patient?
A) Coronary artery bypass grafting surgery
B) Improvement of glycemic control, ranolazine, and follow-up in 6 months
C) Niacin, amlodipine, and follow-up in 6 months
D) Percutaneous coronary intervention using bare metal stents
E) Percutaneous coronary intervention using drug-eluting stents
Correct Answer:
Verified
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