A 74-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital for an episode of paroxysmal atrial fibrillation that caused palpitations and dizziness. She is started on metoprolol and amiodarone. Her past medical history is also significant for recurrent deep venous thrombosis 6 months ago. The patient has been on chronic anticoagulation therapy with a stable dose of warfarin since then. Her primary care physician checks her International Normalized Ratio every month; it is 2.6 at the time of admission. Echocardiogram shows left atrial enlargement and left ventricular ejection fraction of 45%. She feels well the following day and is ready for discharge. Which of the following is the best management for this patient's anticoagulation?
A) Continue current dose of warfarin and recheck International Normalized Ratio in 2 weeks
B) Decrease warfarin dose by 25%
C) Double the dose of warfarin
D) Increase warfarin dose by 25%
E) Stop warfarin and recheck International Normalized Ratio in 1 week
Correct Answer:
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