A 31-year-old man comes to the physician due to exertional shortness of breath over the last year. He gets short of breath after running 1-2 miles but feels mostly fine with daily activities. He has no chest pain, palpitations, or fainting spells. He also has no past medical history and takes no medications. There is no family history of sudden death. His blood pressure is 147/90 mm Hg, pulse is 77/min, and body mass index is 22 kg/m2. The apical precordial impulse is hyperdynamic. S1 and S2 are normal and a fourth heart sound is heard. He has a 2/6 systolic murmur at the left sternal border which increases with Valsalva. The lungs are clear to auscultation. An echocardiogram shows interventricular septal thickness of 1.8 cm (normal <1.1 cm) and posterior left ventricular wall thickness of 0.9 cm (normal <1.1 cm) . Left ventricular ejection fraction is 75%. There is systolic anterior motion of the mitral valve. At rest, his peak instantaneous left ventricular outflow gradient is 25 mm Hg; however, it is 65 mm Hg after exercise. Holter monitoring for 24 hours shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Alcohol septal ablation
B) Amiodarone
C) Amlodipine
D) Implantable cardioverter defibrillator
E) Metoprolol
Correct Answer:
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