A 62-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with pain and numbness in the right leg. He says "I was watching television 2 hours ago when the pain started, and then my leg became numb." Past medical history includes coronary artery disease with anterior wall myocardial infarction, ischemic cardiomyopathy, hypertension, and hyperlipidemia. He does not adhere regularly to prescribed medications. The patient does not smoke cigarettes but consumes alcohol occasionally. He appears to be in significant discomfort due to pain. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg, pulse is 102/min and regular, and respirations are 14/min. Physical examination shows a cool right lower extremity with delayed capillary refill. Even with Doppler examination, no pulses are detected at the right popliteal and dorsalis pedis arteries. Which of the following is the best next step in the management of this patient?
A) Intravenous heparin and CT angiography
B) Intravenous heparin and emergency surgical revascularization
C) Intravenous fluids, antibiotics, and careful observation
D) Intravenous recombinant tissue plasminogen activator (rTPA)
E) Intravenous heparin and transthoracic echocardiogram
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q92: A 31-year-old man comes to the physician
Q93: A 12-year-old boy is brought to the
Q94: A 70-year-old man comes to the hospital
Q95: A 70-year-old woman is brought to the
Q96: A 43-year-old man comes to the physician
Q98: A 70-year-old man comes to the hospital
Q99: A 56-year-old man is brought to the
Q100: A 57-year-old woman undergoes aortic valve replacement
Q101: A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency
Q102: A 27-year-old woman is brought to the
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents