A 52-year-old man comes to the emergency department an hour after the onset of severe substernal chest pressure that lasted 30 minutes. The symptoms started when he was helping his brother move into his new house and were associated with mild dizziness and shortness of breath. His brother has coronary artery disease with stable angina and the patient took 3 of his brother's nitroglycerin tablets sublingually before his pain eventually subsided. He is currently pain free. Medical history includes hypertension and hyperlipidemia. The patient's daily medications include losartan, atorvastatin, and low-dose aspirin. Blood pressure is 152/93 mm Hg and pulse is 105/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. The lungs are clear to auscultation bilaterally. Cardiac examination indicates a prominent point of maximal impulse that is displaced downward and to the left. Auscultation reveals regular, normal heart sounds with an audible S4. There are no murmurs. The rest of the physical examination is within normal limits. ECG shows sinus tachycardia and voltage criteria for left ventricular hypertrophy, similar to the patient's ECG 6 months ago. His troponin level is normal. He says, "I feel fine! I just want to go home and I will see my primary care doctor." Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Observe with repeat ECG and troponin levels
B) Order a pharmacologic stress echocardiogram
C) Order an exercise radionuclide perfusion scan
D) Proceed with cardiac catheterization
E) Reassure and discharge with close follow-up
Correct Answer:
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