A 42-year-old man comes to the office due to a painless lump under the skin on his right upper back, which he first noticed 3 months ago. He is incidentally noted to have a blood pressure of 180/110 mm Hg. He has no symptoms. The patient has no history of hypertension or other medical conditions and has not seen a physician since high school. He takes no medications, does not use tobacco, and consumes 1 or 2 alcoholic beverages on weekends. Family history is notable for hypertension in his mother and end-stage renal disease in a maternal uncle. The patient exercised regularly until recently, when he started work as a supervisor at a warehouse. He eats fast food at least 3 days a week. Repeat blood pressure measurements after 15 minutes of rest are 180/105 mm Hg on the right arm and 185/110 mm Hg on the left. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 12/min. BMI is 26.2 kg/m2. Cardiac examination reveals a diffuse and sustained apical impulse with normal heart sounds and no murmurs or gallops. There is a 3-cm, soft, mobile, nontender, subcutaneous mass consistent with a lipoma in the right scapular region. The remainder of the examination, including funduscopy, is normal. Blood cell counts, serum electrolytes, serum creatinine, blood glucose, and urinalysis are within normal limits. The ECG is shown in the exhibit. 
In addition to providing reassurance regarding the patient's skin lesion, which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Initiate a combination of 2 antihypertensive agents and schedule a follow-up
B) Obtain 24-hour urine fractionated metanephrines and catecholamines
C) Obtain the plasma aldosterone/plasma renin activity ratio
D) Recommend lifestyle modifications and follow up in 6 weeks
Correct Answer:
Verified
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