A 50-year-old man is brought to the emergency department due to chest pain and lightheadedness for the past hour. He was clearing away snow when he suddenly felt substernal chest pressure accompanied by cold sweats. The pain has been constant, radiates to the left jaw, and is not relieved by rest or the nitroglycerin spray he received in the ambulance. The patient has a history of well-controlled hypertension. He smokes occasionally, especially on weekends, but does not use alcohol. His father had a myocardial infarction at age 60. On examination, the patient appears to be in mild distress. The extremities are cold. Temperature is 36.1 C (97 F) , blood pressure is 84/52 mm Hg, pulse is 34/min, and respirations are 16/min. Oxygen saturation is 94% on 4 L/min nasal cannula oxygen. Lung auscultation reveals crackles at both lung bases. There are no heart murmurs. The abdomen is soft and nontender. ECG shows sinus bradycardia with a 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and AVF. Which of the following is most appropriate as part of initial management for this patient?
A) Intravenous atropine sulfate
B) Intravenous dobutamine
C) Intravenous epinephrine
D) Intravenous normal saline
E) Nitroglycerin infusion
Correct Answer:
Verified
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