A 56-year-old man is brought to the emergency department with a 4-hour history of crushing, substernal chest pain. His ECG shows a 3-mm ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4. He is taken for cardiac catheterization and undergoes primary angioplasty and stenting of the occluded mid-left anterior descending artery. There is 30%-40% stenosis of the right coronary artery that does not require intervention. After the procedure, the patient is admitted to the coronary care unit. Echocardiogram shows mild anterior wall hypokinesis and a normal left ventricular ejection fraction. He remains chest pain free throughout his 3-day hospital stay. The patient is started on dual antiplatelet therapy. He begins a progressive supervised activity program, which is uneventful, and he is subsequently discharged home. At a follow-up appointment 3 weeks later, he reports that he has been walking for 20 minutes each day without any problems. The patient occasionally has some bleeding when brushing his teeth, but is otherwise asymptomatic. He asks whether it would be safe for him to resume sexual activity. Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation?
A) He should be able to resume sexual activity at this time.
B) He should be able to resume sexual activity once he has completed a month of dual antiplatelet therapy.
C) He should defer sexual activity for 3 months to allow for myocardial remodelling.
D) He should defer sexual activity until a cardiac stress test is performed.
E) He should defer sexual activity until he has been evaluated at cardiac rehabilitation.
Correct Answer:
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