A 70-year-old man comes to the hospital due to fever, lethargy, productive cough, and shortness of breath. He has type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, paroxysmal atrial fibrillation, and peripheral vascular disease. His medications include warfarin, sotalol, insulin detemir, and lisinopril. Chest x-ray shows infiltrates in the left lung base. He is admitted and treated with azithromycin, ceftriaxone, and oxygen therapy. On examination, the patient is now awake and alert but oriented only to person. His blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 65/min, and respirations are 14/min. Laboratory tests ordered 30 minutes before the first event are shown below.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Intravenous amiodarone
B) Intravenous lidocaine
C) Intravenous magnesium sulfate
D) Oral metoprolol
E) Temporary transvenous pacing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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