A 29-year-old man comes to the emergency department due to sudden-onset chest pain over the past hour. He says, "I have this pressure and squeezing in my chest that does not go away." He has never before had such symptoms. His medical history is insignificant. The patient smokes 2 packs of cigarettes daily and consumes alcohol occasionally. He uses cocaine and had "one shot" several hours ago. His family history is significant for a stroke in his father and a heart attack in his mother. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg, pulse is 112/min, and respirations are 24/min. ECG shows 2-mm ST-segment elevation in leads I, aVL, and V4-V6. The patient receives oxygen by mask, aspirin, and diazepam. He is given sublingual nitroglycerin and started on nitroglycerin infusion. Portable chest x-ray reveals a normal heart contour and clear lung fields. Twenty minutes later, he still has chest pain and his ECG is unchanged. The patient requests that he be given something to alleviate his chest discomfort. His initial troponin I level is undetectable. What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administer intravenous alteplase
B) Administer intravenous metoprolol
C) Administer oral nifedipine and observe
D) Proceed with percutaneous coronary intervention
E) Reassure and ask about prior opioid use
Correct Answer:
Verified
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