A 72-year-old man with diet-controlled diabetes mellitus comes to the emergency department with chest pain for the last 4 hours. He has never had similar pain before. The pain is accompanied by nausea and epigastric discomfort. Electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm and ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. Sublingual nitroglycerine and intravenous morphine are administered and the on-call interventional cardiologist is informed. Several minutes later, the patient complains of lightheadedness, nausea, and weakness. His blood pressure is 75/45 mm Hg, pulse is 60/min, and respirations are 15/min. The patient is diaphoretic and his extremities are cold. The lungs are clear on auscultation and no murmurs are appreciated on cardiac auscultation. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Decrease vagal tone
B) Increase afterload
C) Infuse inotropic agent
D) Optimize preload
E) Thrombolytic therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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