Ned Polsky, a sociologist of deviance, argued that deviance only apply to behaviors and beliefs that "are not the person's fault"? His argument means that, by definition, deviance is the outcome of a rational choice made as a result of free will. This would mean that any compulsive behavior, determined by a mental condition or disorder, is not a form of deviance, and that would encompass many criminals, drug addicts and alcoholics, most people with a mental disorder, most of the people with unconventional physical conditions, and everyone belonging to a non-majority racial, ethnic, religious, and national-origin category. Do you think that his logic makes sense? Be specific and detailed in your argument.
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