Question 1

An HIV-positive woman is 8 weeks pregnant. To prevent maternal-fetal HIV transmission, zidovudine (AZT) is administered. Which of the following shows the appropriate way and schedule of administrating this medication to pregnant women?

Accepted Answer

Zidovudine is a nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor delays the appearance of AIDS symptoms by causing termination of the growth of the viral DNA chain.

Question 2

The woman gave birth 3 days ago. Which type of lochia is expected during the assessment of the postpartum mother?

Accepted Answer

Lochia rubra is the bright red thick vaginal discharge from the day of delivery to day 3. It mainly consists of blood. This is followed by lochia serosa, which consists of brownish pink discharge, from days 4 to 10. It consists of blood and glucose. The color of discharge changes to white usually from days 10 to 14.

Question 3

On assessment, a patient who sustained a head injury is not able to obey simple responses consistently, but is able to localize painful stimuli. The patient engaged in confused conversation. Eye-opening is not spontaneous, but response to sound is evident. The patient's score on the Glasgow Coma Scale is ________ .

Accepted Answer

The patient's score is 12. Being able to localize painful stimuli has a value of 5. Confused conversation has a value of 4. Being able to respond to sound has a value of 3.

Question 4

A woman presents with a firm, round and painless sore in the vagina. The lesion appeared 2 weeks before the consult. The most likely diagnosis is:

Accepted Answer

Based on the findings, the patient is having sphyllis, caused by Treponema pallidum. The other findings are not correct.

Question 5

A child diagnosed with acute epiglottiditis is prescribed with ampicillin. Which of the following side effects is expected with ampicillin therapy?

Accepted Answer

Erythematous rash appearing within 2 weeks of therapy is an expected side effect. If the child develops signs of pseudomembranous colitis that includes diarrhea, fever, and abdominal pain, you should immediately contact the physician.

Question 6

To determine the fetal lung maturity, which of the following tests is performed?

Accepted Answer

Amniocentesis is performed to determine fetal lung maturity, genetic disorders, and metabolic defects. This procedure is usually done between 13 and 14 weeks of pregnancy. Alpha-fetoprotein is done to determine open neural tube and abdominal wall defects. Chorionic villus sampling detects genetic abnormalities. Fern test is done to determine the presence of amniotic fluid leakage.

Question 7

A pregnant woman is scheduled for contraction stress test. The result revealed a negative contraction stress test. Which of the following statements best describes the results of the test?

Accepted Answer

A negative contraction stress test indicates that there was good heat variability with no late or variable decelerations from uterine contractions. This result means that the fetus can tolerate labor. Option B refers to unsatisfactory result. Option C refers to an equivocal result. Option D refers to a positive contraction test.

Question 8

Children become burned by accident all the time. What is the most common type of burn?

Accepted Answer

Scalding is the most common type of burn. The scald injury usually happens by pulling hot liquids off a table or stove. In cases of abuse, hot water immersion is the typical cause. Provide fluid therapy with an isotonic solution, such as normal saline or lactated Ringer's.

Question 9

The nurse is assessing the visual acuity of a client using the Snellen chart. The examination reveals that the client has a visual acuity of 20/120. The client asks the nurse what it means. Which of the following responses by the nurse is the most accurate?

Accepted Answer

A result of 20/120 means that The client is able to read at 20 feet from the chart what a healthy eye can read at 120 feet. The other options are not accurate.

Question 10

A patient is prescribed with levothyroxine sodium (Synthroid). On assessment, the patient demonstrates intolerance to cold, bradycardia, weakness, and dry skin and hair. The patient gained weight since the last assessment. Based on these findings, which of the following prescriptions is ordered?

Accepted Answer

Levothyroxine is a thyroid replacement. Based on the findings, the patient is still demonstrating signs of hypothyroidism, indicating that an increase of dose is needed.

Question 11

An 8-year-old boy is brought by the mother to the office because she suspects that her child has a problem with hearing. On examination, the child says that ringing and roaring type of constant tinnitus fill both of his ears. The boy also reported hearing loud sounds when chewing. Pinkish discoloration of the tympanic membrane is also noted. Rinne test is negative. The child is most likely diagnosed with:

Accepted Answer

Otosclerosis is commonly seen in children between the ages of 7 and 8. This ear disorder is manifested by bilateral hearing loss, a ringing or roaring type of constant tinnitus. Loud sounds are heard when chewing. The Rinne test is negative. Mastoiditis is manifested by cellulitis on the skin over the mastoid process. Presbycusis is hearing loss occurring commonly in the elderly without any abnormalities. Labyrinthitis involves permanent hearing impairment in the affected side.

Question 12

A 12-year-old girl is scheduled for a series of diagnostic exams for the ear. On the Weber test, the girl says that she can hear the sound longer in the left ear than in the right ear. Based on the given information, which of the following interpretations is true?

Accepted Answer

Based on the Weber test, the term lateralization is applied to the louder ear, in this case in the left ear. This finding indicates that conductive hearing loss occurs in the ear to which the sound is lateralized (the left ear) or that the right ear has sensorineural hearing loss.

Question 13

When the cardiac output decreases, the body compensates by which of the following mechanisms?

Accepted Answer

When cardiac output falls, the body initiates a cascade of compensatory mechanisms to keep up with the oxygen demand of the tissues. Epinephrine and norepinephrine are released to cause vasoconstriction, which increases the after load and increases the blood volume. The Frank-Starling mechanism increases the preload to sustain cardiac performance. The myocardium increases its size to deliver more oxygenated blood with each contraction. The RAAS is activated to retain water and sodium, increasing the blood volume.

Question 14

A patient presents signs of flushing and pulsating of the nail beds (Quincke pulse). He was also noted to have a bounding radial pulse. These typical findings are related to which of the following cardiovascular disorders?

Accepted Answer

Aortic regurgitation is a condition where there is a backflow of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle. This condition results from the incompetent closure of the aortic valve due to disease trauma of the aorta, or valvular abnormalities. Signs and symptoms are related to increased fluid volume and increased pressure in the left ventricle in order to overcome the regurgitated blood.
Quincke pulse and bounding radial pulse are more common in chronic aortic regurgitation. Other signs include widening pulse pressure, elevated stroke volume, systolic pulsation of the retinal arterioles (Becker sign), systolic murmur (proximal compression), and diastolic murmur (distal compression) over the femoral artery (Duroziez sign); also includes systolic pulsations of the uvula (Muller sign), bobbing motion of the head during each heartbeat (de Musset sign), and booming sounds over the femoral artery (Traube sign).

Question 15

The following manifestations are usually observed in patients with endocarditis except:

Accepted Answer

Erythema marginatum is characterized by transitory pink, non-pruritic, macular lesions on trunk or inner aspect of upper arms or thighs. This sign is seen in patients with rheumatic fever. Option A refers to Roth's spots. Option B refers to Janeway lesions. Option C refers to petechiae.

Question 16

When assessing a child with tetralogy of Fallot, which of the following assessment findings is expected?

Accepted Answer

Clubbing of fingers and toes is caused by chronic hypoxia, which occurs with tetralogy of Fallot. Growth and development appear normal in children with the condition. Increased blood pressures in the upper extremities are seen in coarctation of aorta. Machine-like murmurs occur in patent ductus arteriosus.

Question 17

The patient sustained second-degree burns on the lower left leg. On assessment, the burned area consists of large blisters with mottled base and broken skin. A wet, shiny, and weeping surface is observed. What is the burn depth of this patient?

Accepted Answer

Burns with large blisters, mottled red bases and wet, shiny weeping surfaces are classified as partial-thickness burns. The other options are not correct.

Question 18

Pulmonary complications are associated with burns of which of the following body parts?

Accepted Answer

Burns of the head, neck, and chest are associated with pulmonary complications.

Question 19

All of the following are ECG findings of premature atrial contractions, except:

Accepted Answer

Premature Atrial Contractions (PACs) occur when the heartbeat starts from the ventricles instead of the sinoatrial node. A PAC usually will also show up on the EKG and be characterized by an odd, misshapen P wave, normal or narrow QRS complex, and extra P waves that may be hidden within QRS complex.

Question 20

A patient sustained full-thickness burns on the upper left arm. Which of the following best describes the extent of full-thickness burns?

Accepted Answer

A Full-thickness burn, similar to third-degree burn, is characterized by deep red, black, white, yellow, or brown area. Option A refers to deep full-thickness burns. Option B refers to partial-thickness superficial burn. Option D refers to superficial-thickness burn.

Quiz 1: The Physician Assistant National Recertifying Exam (PANRE)