Question 1

Which of the following is NOT included in the signs and symptoms associated with acute meningitis?

Accepted Answer

In a patient with a history of meningitis, loss of appetite would be expected.

Question 2

Regarding the management of Noninsulin-Dependent Diabetes Mellitus (NIDDM), which of the following statements best describes the mode of action of sulfonylureas?

Accepted Answer

Sulfonylurea drugs, Orinase for example, lower the blood sugar by stimulating the beta cells of the pancreas to synthesize and release insulin.

Question 3

Myasthenic crisis and cholinergic crisis are the major complications of myasthenia gravis. Which of the following is important for a physician assistant to know when caring for a patient in crisis?

Accepted Answer

The patient cannot handle his own secretions, and respiratory arrest may be imminent. Atropine may be administered to prevent crisis. Anticholinergic drugs are administered to increase the levels of acetylcholine at the myoneural junction. Cholinergic drugs mimic the actions of the parasympathetic nervous system and would not be used.

Question 4

What are the possible complications that could result in case of untreated glaucoma?

Accepted Answer

The increase in intraocular pressure causes atrophy of the retinal ganglion cells And the optic nerve, and leads eventually to blindness.

Question 5

Which of the following clinical features are included in the assessment for initial signs of hypoglycemia?

Accepted Answer

Weakness, fainting, blurred vision; pallor and perspiration are all common symptoms when there is too much insulin or too little food (hypoglycemia). The signs and symptoms in answers (b) and (c) are indicative of hyperglycemia.

Question 6

What is the primary reason for administering morphine to a patient with a myocardial infarction?

Accepted Answer

Morphine is administered because it decreases myocardial oxygen demand. Morphine also decreases pain and anxiety while causing sedation, but it isn't given primarily for those reasons.

Question 7

Which of the following is the most frequent site of internal bleeding associated with hemophilia?

Accepted Answer

The joint cavities-especially the knees, ankles, and elbows-are the most frequent sites of internal bleeding. This bleeding often results in bone changes and crippling, disabling deformities.

Question 8

Which of the following clinical manifestations would be most indicative of the anemia?

Accepted Answer

A shallow breathing of 28 / minute is one of the common signs observed in anemia patients.

Question 9

If a patient with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion, what should be the priority intervention?

Accepted Answer

In a patient with a history of diabetes insipidus is admitted with polyuria, polydipsia, and mental confusion; the priority intervention should always be focused on checking the vital signs so as to avoid the risks of shock or coma.

Question 10

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a temperature of 99.8°F, complaints of blood-tinged hemoptysis, fatigue, and night sweats. What these symptoms are indicative of?

Accepted Answer

A low grade fever, complaints of blood-tinged hemoptysis, fatigue, and night sweats are typically found in patients suffering from tuberculosis.

Question 11

A patient with a diagnosis of HPV is at risk for which of the following?

Accepted Answer

A patient who has HPV is at increased risk of developing the cervical carcinoma.

Question 12

During the history taking, the patient reports that she has a lesion on the perineum. Further investigation reveals a small blister on the vulva that is painful to touch. What do you think the most likely source of the lesion is?

Accepted Answer

Small, tender blisters on perineal area are typically indicative of Herpes.

Question 13

What is the most accurate diagnostic test for treponema pallidum?

Accepted Answer

Florescent treponemal antibody (FTA) is considered the most accurate diagnostic test for treponema pallidum.

Question 14

A patient is admitted to the hospital with a calcium level of 6.0 mg/dL. Which of the following symptoms would you NOT expect to see in this patient?

Accepted Answer

Normal serum calcium is 8.5 - 10 mg/dL. The patient is hypocalcemic. Increased gastric motility, resulting in hyperactive (not hypoactive) bowel sounds, abdominal cramping and diarrhea is an indication of hypocalcemia. Numbness in hands and feet and muscle cramps are also signs of hypocalcemia.

Question 15

Which of the following symptoms is indicative of hypoglycemia?

Accepted Answer

Hypoglycemia in diabetes mellitus causes confusion, indicating the need for carbohydrates. Polydipsia, blurred vision, and polyphagia are symptoms of hyperglycemiA-.

Question 16

If a patient has developed a pulmonary embolism, which of the following symptoms has the physician assistant most likely observed?

Accepted Answer

Typical symptoms of pulmonary embolism include chest pain, shortness of breath, and severe anxiety.

Question 17

In assessing a clinic patient with a diagnosis of hepatitis A, which of the following is the most likely route of transmission?

Accepted Answer

Hepatitis A is the only type that is transmitted by the fecal-oral route through contaminated food. Hepatitis B, C, and D are transmitted through infected bodily fluids.

Question 18

A child is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of Wilm's tumor, stage II. Which of the following statements most accurately describes this stage?

Accepted Answer

The staging of Wilm's tumor is confirmed at surgery as follows: Stage I, the tumor is limited to the kidney and completely resected; stage II, the tumor extends beyond the kidney but is completely resected; stage III, residual nonhematogenous tumor is confined to the abdomen; stage IV, hematogenous metastasis has occurred with spread beyond the abdomen; and stage V, bilateral renal involvement is present at diagnosis.

Question 19

Which of the following conditions most commonly causes acute glomerulonephritis?

Accepted Answer

Acute glomerulonephritis is most commonly caused by the immune response to a prior upper respiratory infection with group A Streptococcus.

Question 20

In an infant with hydrocele who is on a follow-up visit at 1 month of age, the scrotum is smaller than it was at birth, but fluid is still visible on illumination. Which of the following actions is the physician likely to recommend?

Accepted Answer

A hydrocele is a collection of fluid in the scrotum that results from a patent tunica vaginalis. Illumination of the scrotum with a pocket light demonstrates the clear fluid. Often, no treatment is needed and simple massaging of the area resolves the condition.

Quiz 1: Physician Assistant