A 68-year-old man presents to his primary care physician for a routine physical examination. The patient"s medical history is significant for hypertension. The patient is found to have guaiac-positive stools and is subsequently referred for colonoscopy. Colonoscopy reveals a "golf ball"-size, near-obstructing tumor in the descending colon, not admitting the scope. The biopsy is positive for adenocarcinoma of the colon. Which of the following is the next step in the management of this patient?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Given the presence of a near-obstructing colon tumor, the priority is to plan for colon resection to prevent complete obstruction and manage the primary cancer. A metastatic workup is also important to stage the disease and guide further treatment, but the need for resection remains regardless of metastatic findings.

A 68-Year-Old Man Presents to His Primary Care Physician for a Routine