A 57-year-old man is found to have a rectal mass 3 cm from the anal verge on digital rectal examination. Subsequent colonoscopy and biopsy confirm rectal adenocarcinoma. EUS examination demonstrates penetration of the tumor into, but not through, the muscularis propria, but shows significant perirectal lymph nodes. CT scan of chest/abdomen/pelvis demonstrates no metastases. The patient is staged as T2N1M0. What procedure should be attempted to remove the primary lesion in this patient?

Question

Quizplus · Accepted Answer

Given the staging of T2N1M0 for rectal adenocarcinoma, the appropriate treatment involves neo-adjuvant chemoradiation to shrink the tumor and address the lymph node involvement, followed by a more definitive surgical resection, in this case, abdominoperineal resection (APR), due to the tumor's proximity to the anal verge.

A 57-Year-Old Man Is Found to Have a Rectal Mass