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A 55-Year-Old Man with Known Hepatic Cirrhosis Due to Hepatitis

Question 26

Multiple Choice

A 55-year-old man with known hepatic cirrhosis due to hepatitis C and alcohol abuse is brought to the emergency department with lethargy.  His wife states that the patient has been confused for the past 2 days.  He has not had any fevers, recent abdominal pain, or vomiting.  He eats a regular diet and has no constipation or diarrhea.  He was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis 2 years ago and quit drinking alcohol at that time.  One year ago, he underwent upper GI endoscopy and was diagnosed with non-bleeding grade 2 esophageal varices.  Since then, he has been maintained on propranolol.  In addition, he had a large-volume paracentesis 5 months ago and has been taking spironolactone and furosemide.  His wife states that he has been compliant with his medications.
His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 99/54 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min and regular.  Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air.  Abdominal examination shows a distended but non-tender abdomen.  There is shifting dullness and a fluid thrill is present.  Rectal examination shows brown stool, which is negative for occult blood.  There is 2+ pretibial edema.  The patient is oriented to person only and has asterixis.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A 55-year-old man with known hepatic cirrhosis due to hepatitis C and alcohol abuse is brought to the emergency department with lethargy.  His wife states that the patient has been confused for the past 2 days.  He has not had any fevers, recent abdominal pain, or vomiting.  He eats a regular diet and has no constipation or diarrhea.  He was diagnosed with liver cirrhosis 2 years ago and quit drinking alcohol at that time.  One year ago, he underwent upper GI endoscopy and was diagnosed with non-bleeding grade 2 esophageal varices.  Since then, he has been maintained on propranolol.  In addition, he had a large-volume paracentesis 5 months ago and has been taking spironolactone and furosemide.  His wife states that he has been compliant with his medications. His temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 99/54 mm Hg, and pulse is 92/min and regular.  Oxygen saturation is 97% on room air.  Abdominal examination shows a distended but non-tender abdomen.  There is shifting dullness and a fluid thrill is present.  Rectal examination shows brown stool, which is negative for occult blood.  There is 2+ pretibial edema.  The patient is oriented to person only and has asterixis. Laboratory results are as follows:   Urine toxicology screen is negative.  Chest x-ray is unremarkable.  Urinalysis is negative for infection.  Blood and urine cultures are obtained.  CT scan of the head shows mild cerebral atrophy, but no masses or bleeding. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Perform lumbar puncture B) Start oral rifaximin C) Pass nasogastric tube and perform gastric lavage D) Perform upper GI endoscopy E) Perform diagnostic paracentesis
Urine toxicology screen is negative.  Chest x-ray is unremarkable.  Urinalysis is negative for infection.  Blood and urine cultures are obtained.  CT scan of the head shows mild cerebral atrophy, but no masses or bleeding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?


A) Perform lumbar puncture
B) Start oral rifaximin
C) Pass nasogastric tube and perform gastric lavage
D) Perform upper GI endoscopy
E) Perform diagnostic paracentesis

Correct Answer:

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