A 56-year-old man comes to the emergency department with retrosternal chest pain that began when he was cleaning his backyard a few hours ago. His medical problems include type 2 diabetes mellitus, hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, and obesity. Three weeks ago, his hemoglobin A1C was 9.6% and glyburide was added. He has no overt chronic complications of diabetes. His medications include metformin, glyburide, ramipril, amlodipine, simvastatin, and low-dose aspirin.
His blood pressure is 140/80 mm Hg, pulse is 70/min, and body mass index is 38 kg/m2. The patient appears a little apprehensive, but the examination otherwise shows no abnormalities.
Electrocardiogram shows normal sinus rhythm and non-specific ST-T changes in the lateral chest leads. The initial levels of cardiac troponin I are normal. Chemistry profile is normal except for blood glucose of 266 mg/dL. Chest x-ray is unremarkable.
The patient is admitted to a telemetry bed for monitoring, and serial cardiac enzymes are ordered. He is allowed to eat a diabetic diet. Finger-stick blood glucose measurement before meals and bedtime is ordered.
Which of the following is the best way to manage this patient's diabetes mellitus during hospitalization?
A) Continue his home regimen and start a long-acting basal insulin
B) Continue his home regimen and start a sliding scale of short-acting insulin
C) Stop oral diabetic agents and start a basal-bolus regimen
D) Stop oral diabetic agents and start intravenous insulin infusion
E) Stop oral diabetic agents and start a sliding scale of short-acting insulin
Correct Answer:
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