A 52-year-old man comes to the physician because of weight loss and constipation for the past 3 months. He has no abdominal pain, vomiting, or black stools. He has smoked 1 pack of cigarettes daily for 20 years.
His vital signs are within normal limits. Examination shows no abnormalities. Test of the stool for occult blood is positive.
Laboratory results are as follows:
He undergoes a colonoscopy that shows a nonobstructive mass in the rectum 10 cm from the anal verge. Biopsy during colonoscopy shows moderately differentiated adenocarcinoma. MR imaging shows tumor invading through the muscularis propria into perirectal tissues. CT scan of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis shows no lymph node enlargement or evidence of metastatic disease.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient?
A) Chemoradiation followed by surgery and chemotherapy
B) Surgery followed by chemotherapy
C) Surgery followed by radiation
D) Surgery only
Correct Answer:
Verified
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