A 52-year-old man with alcoholic cirrhosis is admitted for worsening abdominal distension. He claims to have been compliant with his medications, which include spironolactone, furosemide, lactulose, propranolol, folic acid, and thiamine. He has no fever, chills, or abdominal pain. The patient has had no gastrointestinal bleeding in the past, but upper gastrointestinal endoscopy performed 6 months ago was consistent with grade 2 esophageal varices.
His temperature is 36.3 C (97.4 F) , blood pressure is 115/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min and regular. Tense ascites is present. His abdomen is nontender. There is 3+ pitting edema to the thighs bilaterally.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's acid-base disorder?
A) Central stimulation of ventilation
B) Decreased hepatic metabolism of lactic acid
C) Gram-negative sepsis
D) Lactulose-induced diarrhea
E) Use of diuretics
Correct Answer:
Verified
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