A 56-year-old woman with colon cancer diagnosed on screening colonoscopy is scheduled for hemicolectomy in 2 weeks. She has a history of systemic lupus erythematosus, lupus nephritis, and pericarditis. The patient was treated with cyclophosphamide and high-dose corticosteroids for her lupus nephritis 6 years ago. The nephritis went into remission after 2 years of treatment and has not reoccurred. Six months ago, she had an episode of pericarditis with effusion that was treated with high-dose prednisone. The prednisone was slowly tapered and discontinued a week ago. She is currently on a maintenance regimen of hydroxychloroquine.
Blood pressure is 135/80 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. Her body mass index is 29 kg/m2. Lungs are clear to auscultation. There are no skin rashes or striae. She has a Cushingoid appearance. There is no peripheral edema.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in managing this patient's preoperative steroid requirement?
A) ACTH stimulation test
B) Maintenance corticosteroids prior to surgery
C) Proceed to surgery as planned
D) Stress-dose corticosteroids perioperatively
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q230: A 52-year-old man comes to the office
Q231: A 35-year-old woman comes to the office
Q232: A 52-year-old woman comes to the clinic
Q233: A 52-year-old man comes to the physician
Q234: A 47-year-old man comes to the physician
Q236: A 26-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q237: A 43-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q238: A 51-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q239: A 46-year-old woman comes to the office
Q240: A 51-year-old woman comes to the office
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents