A 61-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the office due to leakage of urine. The patient reports increased urinary frequency and voids 1 or 2 times per hour. She often awakens at night with an immediate need to void and occasionally does not make it to the bathroom in time.
The patient has mild intermittent asthma controlled with an albuterol inhaler. Her other medications include low-dose aspirin and a multivitamin. She had 2 cesarean deliveries, the last of which was complicated by a venous thromboembolism after delivery.
Vital signs are normal. BMI is 27 kg/m2. Pelvic examination reveals a thin, atrophic vagina. Cough stress test is negative and postvoid residual volume is 65 mL. Urinalysis and urine culture are normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Bladder training with timed voids
B) Midurethral sling procedure
C) Pessary placement
D) Transdermal estrogen patch
E) Urodynamic testing
Correct Answer:
Verified
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