A 57-year-old man is evaluated for a 6-month history of persistent diarrhea. The patient describes frequent soft to watery bowel movements that sometimes awaken him from sleep. He has had fecal incontinence on several occasions along with abdominal bloating and excessive flatulence but has had no fever, abdominal or rectal pain, tenesmus, melena, hematochezia, or weight loss. Medical history includes hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, and a 40-year history of diabetes mellitus treated with insulin. The patient has not traveled recently.
Temperature is 36.9 C (98.4 F) , blood pressure is 136/84 mm Hg supine and 122/77 mm Hg standing, and pulse is 72/min. The lungs are clear on auscultation and heart sounds are normal. The abdomen is nondistended, soft, and nontender with no palpable mass or hepatosplenomegaly. Bowel sounds are normal. Stool is negative for occult blood. Light touch and vibratory sensation are decreased on both feet, and bilateral ankle reflexes are absent.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Stool is negative for ova and parasites, and stool culture grows no pathogenic bacteria. Colonoscopy reveals grossly normal mucosa; random biopsies are unrevealing. Small bowel follow-through barium studies and upper gastrointestinal endoscopy with random biopsies are normal.
Which of the following is most likely contributing to this patient's condition?
A) Bacterial overgrowth
B) Celiac disease
C) Diarrhea-predominant irritable bowel syndrome
D) Microscopic colitis
E) Pancreatic insufficiency
Correct Answer:
Verified
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