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A 32-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office Due to Malaise

Question 323

Multiple Choice

A 32-year-old man comes to the office due to malaise and fatigue over the last 3 months.  The patient also reports mild generalized abdominal discomfort and nausea.  He has lost approximately 2.3 kg (5 lb) in the last month.  The patient has had no fever, vomiting, diarrhea, back pain, or urinary symptoms.  He has no medical issues and takes no medication.  The patient is a lifetime nonsmoker.  Family history is notable for liver cancer in his father.
Physical examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness.  The liver edge is soft and palpable 2 cm below the right costal margin.  Rectal examination shows no abnormalities, and a stool occult blood test is negative.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A 32-year-old man comes to the office due to malaise and fatigue over the last 3 months.  The patient also reports mild generalized abdominal discomfort and nausea.  He has lost approximately 2.3 kg (5 lb)  in the last month.  The patient has had no fever, vomiting, diarrhea, back pain, or urinary symptoms.  He has no medical issues and takes no medication.  The patient is a lifetime nonsmoker.  Family history is notable for liver cancer in his father. Physical examination shows right upper quadrant tenderness.  The liver edge is soft and palpable 2 cm below the right costal margin.  Rectal examination shows no abnormalities, and a stool occult blood test is negative. Laboratory results are as follows:   A hepatitis panel shows immunity against the hepatitis B virus.  Ultrasonography shows no gallstones and no common bile duct dilation.  Liver biopsy reveals intrahepatic ductal obliteration with moderate lymphocytic infiltration and periductal  onion skin  fibrosis. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient? A) Colonoscopy B) Cyclosporine C) Glucocorticoids D) Serum tumor markers E) Ursodeoxycholic acid A hepatitis panel shows immunity against the hepatitis B virus.  Ultrasonography shows no gallstones and no common bile duct dilation.  Liver biopsy reveals intrahepatic ductal obliteration with moderate lymphocytic infiltration and periductal "onion skin" fibrosis.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Colonoscopy
B) Cyclosporine
C) Glucocorticoids
D) Serum tumor markers
E) Ursodeoxycholic acid

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