A 38-year-old woman comes to the office due to constipation for the last 3-4 months. She has not had previous problems with bowel movements; however, she now spends 20-25 minutes having a bowel movement once every 3-4 days. The patient reports excessive straining; hard, pebble-like stools; incomplete evacuation; and intermittent digital disimpaction. She also has abdominal discomfort, bloating, and increased flatulence; all are relieved with bowel movements. Her appetite is good and her weight is stable.
The patient's other medical problems include anxiety disorder, vitiligo, migraine headaches, and fibromyalgia. She uses ibuprofen occasionally and takes no other medications. She underwent cognitive-behavioral therapy for anxiety and panic attacks approximately 3 years ago.
The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Her diet consists mainly of hamburgers, pizza, and fried foods. Family history is negative for colon cancer.
Vital signs are normal. Physical examination shows no abnormalities.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Check serum TSH
B) Perform anorectal manometry
C) Perform colonoscopy
D) Recommend fiber, fluids, and exercise
E) Repeat cognitive-behavioral therapy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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