A 32-year-old man is evaluated for a 3-month history of abdominal discomfort and diarrhea. He has had 3-4 loose stools per day and abdominal cramping that is relieved by bowel movements. The patient has also had blood in the stool during the past week. He has had no fevers or night sweats. Four months ago, the patient was diagnosed with Clostridium difficile colitis after taking antibiotics for a sore throat and was prescribed oral vancomycin. He has no other chronic medical conditions and takes no medications. He does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 112/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 88/min. The abdomen is soft with mild tenderness in the periumbilical and left lower-quadrant areas. There is no rebound tenderness or rigidity. Rectal examination shows guaiac-positive stool.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Colonoscopy with biopsy
B) Duodenal aspiration
C) Oral rifaximin
D) Oral vancomycin
E) Selective anaerobic culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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