A 62-year-old man comes to the physician with complaints of vague abdominal discomfort. He has a history of liver cirrhosis due to hepatitis C infection and prior heavy alcohol use. He failed hepatitis C treatment 6 years ago. The patient has no vomiting, weight loss, rectal bleeding, or dark stools. He is an ex-smoker with a 35-pack-year history.
His blood pressure is 102/65 mm Hg and pulse is 90/min. Lungs are clear on auscultation. The abdomen is nontender with presence of a small fluid wave. There is trace bilateral lower-extremity edema.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Abdominal ultrasound shows a nodular, cirrhotic liver and a 2-cm dominant nodule with poorly defined borders in the right lower lobe. There is mild splenomegaly.
What is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Order MRI of liver
B) Order percutaneous biopsy of dominant liver nodule
C) Sorafenib therapy
D) Surgical resection of dominant liver nodule
E) Ultrasound follow-up in 2-3 months
Correct Answer:
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