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A 23-Year-Old Woman with a 4-Year History of Ileo-Colonic Crohn's

Question 341

Multiple Choice

A 23-year-old woman with a 4-year history of ileo-colonic Crohn's disease comes to the physician complaining of gas and a feculent vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks.  She has no fever, chills, abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.  She has been treated with azathioprine for her Crohn's disease without any recent flares.  Her medications include vitamin D and vitamin B12 supplements.
Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min.  Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen without hepatosplenomegaly.  Rectal examination is within normal limits.  Pelvic examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
A 23-year-old woman with a 4-year history of ileo-colonic Crohn's disease comes to the physician complaining of gas and a feculent vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks.  She has no fever, chills, abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting.  She has been treated with azathioprine for her Crohn's disease without any recent flares.  Her medications include vitamin D and vitamin B12 supplements. Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min.  Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen without hepatosplenomegaly.  Rectal examination is within normal limits.  Pelvic examination is unremarkable. Laboratory results are as follows:   Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis shows a fistulous tract from the rectum through the vaginal wall with surrounding wall edema. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management? A) Infliximab B) Mesalamine C) Observation D) Prednisone E) Surgery
Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis shows a fistulous tract from the rectum through the vaginal wall with surrounding wall edema.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?


A) Infliximab
B) Mesalamine
C) Observation
D) Prednisone
E) Surgery

Correct Answer:

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