A 23-year-old woman with a 4-year history of ileo-colonic Crohn's disease comes to the physician complaining of gas and a feculent vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks. She has no fever, chills, abdominal pain, nausea, or vomiting. She has been treated with azathioprine for her Crohn's disease without any recent flares. Her medications include vitamin D and vitamin B12 supplements.
Her blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Examination shows a soft and nontender abdomen without hepatosplenomegaly. Rectal examination is within normal limits. Pelvic examination is unremarkable.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Magnetic resonance imaging of the pelvis shows a fistulous tract from the rectum through the vaginal wall with surrounding wall edema.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management?
A) Infliximab
B) Mesalamine
C) Observation
D) Prednisone
E) Surgery
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q336: A 24-year-old man is brought to the
Q337: A 65-year-old woman with a known history
Q338: A 46-year-old man comes to the physician
Q339: A 25-year-old man comes to the physician
Q340: A 77-year-old man is brought to the
Q342: A 34-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q343: A 32-year-old man is evaluated for a
Q344: A 62-year-old man comes to the physician
Q345: A 37-year-old man comes to the clinic
Q346: A 35-year-old man is evaluated for heartburn
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents